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From ebony pucks to magic foil, mystical and controversial tweaks.

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Of course ! Mathematically it it either in absolute polarity or not, hence the 50% deduction. That being said there are production values which may alter the polarity of the final recordings. I pointed out the example of the Commitments. An analysis of Phil Spector's Wall of Sound concept also reveals that he places the background instrumentals in inverted polarity and the singers in correct polarity, so where does that leave your statement?

The 50% probability does not apply, but an understanding of the effects and the cure is important for the listener to understand. Your statement betrays an listener who does not hear inversion. That as I previously posted is not uncommon ( my statement that after attending 20+ years of CES exhibitions, I have rarely met any exhibitor who can readily hear inversion). That being said, when I have used the exhibitor's equipment and demonstrated the difference, most could hear the sonic change. I distinctly remember one designer saying to me that while he was familiar with the concept and theory he had never bothered to actually play with the absolute polarity, although he was using a CD player with a digital polarity switch.

Many listeners fall into the same trap. They know all about the theory, and the possible ramifications, but neglect the most important part, and that is the actual comparison of a live instrument with their electronically recorded counterpart. While it is definitely easier to hear polarity with instruments which have a harder attack ( Brass and Woodwinds) the inversion of polarity also has an audible effect, however subtle, on the harmonic structures of even bowed instruments. If [phase and time alignment are not addressed, then the perpetual audiophile search for musical "accuracy" becomes a farce. Any tweaking becomes questionable because the results on a system with either mixed polarities or inverted polarities will, by its very nature, obscure many changes.

As for the 50% chance suggestion: consider this. Why does every Chesky CD chronologically issued before JD 63 exhibit correct polarity and every one after appear to be inverted (including their second test CD)? Why is it that the Mercury Living Presence CD reissues are phase correct when produced by Dennis Drake and become inverted after he is replaced? Why are most of my Philips and DDG LP's inverted, along with my Deccas?

In fact the RCA LP's recorded for them by Decca (Faust, Witches Brew, etc) are consistently inverted in polarity compared to the 1s versions of the recordings they made in the US.

Why is that the Hales Revelation series of speakers have their midrange inverted in polarity to the other drivers, as well as the Alon speakers? Why is this deliberate design choice so common (oh, I know the reasons given: the inversion produces a smother sine wave plot over the range of the driver since the inversion induces cancellation at the crossover overlaps creating what is heard as a steeper roll off slope). The technology is here and the means to make phase and time coherent speakers has long been availble. The one factor which holds back this development is that the listeners, both reviewer and the lay person, have not been made aware of the issue. This allows confusion to reign in the market place and a concerted push towards a standardized ideal is simply obfuscated.

Stu



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  • LOL! - unclestu52 11:57:25 09/14/09 (0)

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