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I'm dubious about that possibility

The evidence offered was PET scans showing brain activity in areas not involved when listening to music with no ultrasonic content. I can't see why intermodulation products in the audible range should excite such activity when normal musical content in the same range didn't.

It seems reasonable to me for the researchers to assume that a different part of the brain is responding to the ultrasonic frequencies given the results. There could be all sorts of reasons for that amd it doesn't contradict the paper you referred to which was about heard differences rather than about perception in a non-auditory area of the brain.

More work required by both research teams?

David Aiken

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