In Reply to: "Your statement implies this cannot be done for cables at audio frequencies..." posted by truthseekerprime on October 1, 2007 at 14:32:04:
> No it doesn't - why would it imply that?
Because you stated an experiment had to be performed to determine if the changes in cables was causing an audible change. I was trying to point out that a plot showing a variation of 0.000001 dB over the audible frequency range is sufficient to show an inaudible change in the signal.
> I agree with that - but as you also pointed out the authors of those
> papers don't seem to have made much of an effort to match the measurements
> they made to any kind of audibility criteria, and that makes them not very
> useful.
Yes but they are likely to be believers (I have not read the article yet) and this will be reflected in their words and how they go about things. So long as they provide honest data in a scientific manner this will not matter because they will be observing and reporting reality rather than just presenting their beliefs. Given their data one can compare it with standard audibility measurements from 50 years ago to see if it is well below, well above or somewhere near the threshold.
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Follow Ups
- RE: "Your statement implies this cannot be done for cables at audio frequencies..." - andy19191 14:57:54 10/01/07 (0)