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Original Message

RE: 44.1 kHz shown scientifically to be inadequate

Posted by Werner on July 30, 2009 at 04:09:24:

"Again, you seem to be complaining of possible ambiguities in a text aimed at a lay audience rather than examining the experiments themselves. The latter strikes me as a more fruitful route"

I have been reading and rereading the two initial papers, with the two experiments, for about a month now.

The papers describe experimental results that, assuming no mistake was made, indicate that:
1) people can discern when two vertically stacked loudspeakers replaying a continous 7kHz squarewave are misaligned in depth down to a distance of 2mm (~5us)
2) ... when a monophonic headphones feed of a continuous 7kHz triangle is first-order low-pass filtered with a time constant down to 5 us.

Kunchur claims that all trivial mechanisms for distinction (i.e. as presently in the knowledge on auditory perception) have been accounted for and were found each to be below the JND threshold at the respective levels and frequencies. In other words: differences are detected and this
through a hitherto unknown mechanism.

Fine.

These two items, and only these two, are the basis of all further argument.

Now please tell me: how follows from 1) and/or 2) that a 44.1kHz sampling system is insufficient?

And tell me further: how follows from 1) and/or 2) that an audio coding system has to be capable of keeping separated two short impulses spaced 5us apart in time?

These are two claims made in the papers and/or the later FAQ, but I fail to see the connection, I fail to see how this is 'a logical consequence of his results' when the experiments did not involve a 44.1kHz sampling system, did not involve bandwidth limiting of the stimuli, and did not involve pulses spaced 5us apart.

This is a sincere question. Maybe I don't see the connection because
I'm stupid, ignorant, or wrongly educated. I'd like to know.

--

As for the FAQ being for laypeople: inaccuracy in terminology never ever brings any benefit.