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Original Message

I can't help it if I know everything, and yes.... I DO have a (smug) answer to all Chris's points...

Posted by gdg on February 13, 2003 at 06:27:30:

But I won't bother and lets just boil it down to this:

If you, Chris or anyone else wants to point out the errors in my reasoning and have alternative ways of determining the accuracy of HIFI gear(other than I LIKE IT) then, BRING IT ON, because I'm ALL ears.
If, on the other hand, all you can do is misinterpret my points and then criticize them, because you're incapable of recognizing that this is really a Ferrari vs Lexus debate, then stick it, cause we're not talking the same language and....

Ok, just one small, smug, example (for the record):

"Your comment would be true if a system never "equaled" the performance of another piece of reference gear in each area of interest."

Chris asks:
"What does this mean, in English?"

This means (for people who need it spelled out for them):
That with a given reference, such as an Audible Illusions L1, I might get bass varying from say 7-9.5 (arbitrary)units but.....
When I remove the preamp and go direct from CD50 to the amp I might get bass that varies between 4-9 units.
Direct,I essentially can match the max bass of the AI, but only sometimes, with a much wider variation, and only when it is actually present in the source material. The AI on the other hand is obviously jacking up the bass ALL THE TIME, and in a non linear fashion. The fact that the CD50 direct sometimes sounds lean might be, and in this type of scenerio often is, MISINTERPRETED as a weakness. Hence my comment that I look to equal the performance of a reference in a given area, at least some of the time.
(note reference does not mean "best", it means comparative base line)

I won't go on because if some people aren't capable of reading between the lines I don't have the time to explain myself.....
Holy smokes, that really WAS condescending wasn't it? ;^)

ps There's got to be a better way of editing posts.