Home Speaker Asylum

General speaker questions for audio and home theater.

Quite simply...

it's physics. For those who believe time and phase-alignment is essential, it is accepted that time and phase-alignment is less relevant in the lower bass regions as presented by the loudspeaker itself.

Why? Well, first of all a single bass note wavelength will not fit into a room. Let's look a the wavelengths of various notes:

First Key of a piano - 27.5 Hz - 12.5 meters
Middle C - 261.63 Hz - 1.31 meters
Last key of a piano - 4186.01 Hz - 0.082 meters

You can see that wavelength really starts to increase in the mid-bass region of the audio spectrum (as frequency decreases). There's no way A(0) will fit within my room (so it wraps all around, and I hope that my room is not some nice, neat fraction of this wavelength that will create a node or a null in my listening position).

Also, since bass is less localizable (if that's a word), what you perceive as low-end is dominated by other factors (room loading, geometry and absorption, etc. This leads back to point #1.

Does this make sense?

I am a huge time and phase-alignment proponent, and I use my 2 powered subs both destructively and constructively to smooth out the sub-60 Hz response in my listening space.


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