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Speaker Asylum General speaker questions for audio and home theater. |
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Speaker Asylum General speaker questions for audio and home theater. |
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In Reply to: Re: Blah Blah posted by sser2 on March 31, 2007 at 22:34:43:
No, that is not what I said,"From what you say, speaker impedance value has no meaning because it varies so much."
Where did I say that speaker actual impedance (not claimed nominal speaker impedance) has no meaning?
"Yet all the manufacturers provide impedance ratings for their speakers, and there is not much concern that this parameter cannot be precisely defined"
Wishfull thinking, CLAIMED NOMINAL manufactureres speaker impedance has questionable meaning in this case as it may vary widely over the range (that is why speakers used with tube amps need to have fairly smooth impedance curve).
"Rated impedance is a prevaling value across the frequency range. It means that 4 Ohm speaker, for example, will have about 4 Ohm impedance from 200 to 12,000 Hz. Although this speaker may have impedance of 6 Ohm at 20,000 Hz and 30 Ohm at main resonance, it has to be connected to the 4 Ohm tap.
That is where your logic falls apart. Most of the power and speaker controll is needed in below 200 Hz range. And that is USUALLY where impedance dips (and peaks at tuning resonance) are (plus peak at the crossover to mid/tweeter. So although speaker may be listed as 8 Ohms overall, in that region it may actually be closer to 4 Ohms. So, is it still better to use 4 Ohm or 8 Ohm tap? Probably 4 ohms, but only his ears can tell.
"Tube amp will better control speaker on the nominal tap."
It seems that you are mixing up nominal and actual impedance.
"6 Ohm speaker should neither be used on 4 Ohm nor on 8 Ohm tap."
Complete and uter nonsence. According to that logic that means that Manley Stingray can not be used with any of the manufactured speakers since it has only one 5 Ohms tap.
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Follow Ups
- Re: Blah Blah - Stale 07:49:32 04/01/07 (1)
- I was just going to add that detail - E-Stat 20:47:54 04/02/07 (0)
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