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General Asylum General audio topics that don't fit into specific categories. |
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General Asylum General audio topics that don't fit into specific categories. |
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In Reply to: Why does a violin sound different than a guitar? posted by benhen on April 15, 2007 at 17:39:30:
as the other's have said, very few notes on any instrument consistent of any one frequency. There is the frequency of the primary note, but on most good violins, the second harmonic is actually louder than the primary if you look at the plot of a spectrogram. A good violin could have at least a dozen separate tones in a note. On my violin, certain notes totally drive an electronic tuner bonkers. Also, regarding violin and guitar, the sound production and amplification is completely different- an acoustic guitar has the string vibrating over the soundhole, and the body is basically a big box that gives it resonance and some reflection. A violin string vibrates the bridge, which vibrates the top plate and the soundpost, and the plates actually vibrate and move the air, not the string. People who get hung up on the frequency thing end up w/ bad stereos and not understanding music, so broaden your son's horizons.
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Follow Ups
- Re: voices are in the overtones.... - Matts_ 19:57:38 04/15/07 (2)
- incomplet and insufficient, see above! - Timbo in Oz 14:54:49 04/16/07 (1)
- Re: don't agree... - Matts_ 21:48:53 04/16/07 (0)
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