In Reply to: Why is inverting or non-inverting important? posted by RayP on June 6, 2017 at 12:03:34:
First, some people can hear absolute phase, some can't. I've never heard it, including on direct-to-disc recordings. (However, RIAA encoding and decoding causes LOTS of phase distortion due to the multiple filters used on both ends).
Second, as others have pointed out, multi-mike recordings, mixing, and electronic music have no inherent absolute phase.
Third, not all instrument have absolute phase. Strings don't, for instance, but I think most woodwinds do.
Fourth, there is no standard for absolute phase in recordings, so even those that MIGHT have absolute phase you'd have to guess (experiment) with. Almost everything in the 1960s and 1970s was multi-miked, so forget those recordings. On others, do what sounds better, if either setting does sound better.
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Follow Ups
- RE: Why is inverting or non-inverting important? - Lee of Omaha 09:35:55 06/07/17 (2)
- RE: Why is inverting or non-inverting important? - Tre' 09:46:46 06/07/17 (1)
- RE: Why is inverting or non-inverting important? - Lee of Omaha 10:21:49 06/13/17 (0)