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A Suggestion Why Some Observations Cannot be Scientifically Verified

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Posted on November 14, 2002 at 14:08:04
John C. - Aussie
Audiophile

Posts: 5146
Location: Northern Tasmania
Joined: November 9, 1999
First up let me say I would claim to be a sceptic, but, although I respect and understand Scientific Method, accept that some things associated with human perception may not be scientifically verifiable.

I guess it is a reflection of the passion some hold for audio (and hopefully music) that stirs such emotional arguments both here and other net sites about such items as vinyl vs digital, tubes vs SS, cables, ..... Having studied Science and spent most of my professional life before retiring, teaching mathematics, I appreciate the power of the scientific method and the beauty of logical argument.

However, as with mathematical proof, the validity of an argument depends upon the initial postulates and herein lies the tank trap in audio argument. Scientifically one should only accept postulates supported by scientific method before advancing further argument. However many arguments are based upon subjective, not objective analysis. To those who support the scientific method this is unacceptable as, from that viewpoint, further discussion is invalid as it is based on, to them, unproven assumptions.

I accept that this is a reasonable and logical approach but, to this aging and simple mind, it ignores the variability of perception between individuals. For example, some musicians have perfect pitch and any note that is slightly off key is unacceptable to them yet would be tolerated by others. I suggest that some individuals have more heightened perceptions to differences in audio reproduction caused by cables, brands of valves, .... while others are unable to detect any difference. Double blind tests on a mixed group of such individuals will not yield significant results. The scientific conclusion would logically proclaim that this proves there is no difference but the variability within individuals and their differing perceptional abilities is, to me, another possible valid deduction.

Another example of "snake oil" cabling which comes to mind is the popularity in the USA of specialised power cables which many claim give audible improvement. I would not doubt that in some systems this is correct as, from what I can gather, the power supplies fed to most USA homes is full of garbage and of suspect voltage through a poor connection to the grid. Such cables seem to have much less appeal here and in places with good 240 volt supplies. Now this does not "prove" that fancy power cables do not yield improvement, but it does suggest that the real problem lies elsewhere - poor power supply to the equipment. At the risk of opening up another hornets nest I have heard that one of the reasons that Halcro amps are touted so highly by US reviewers is that their power supplies handle the suspect American power more deftly.

In conclusion I agree that many of the claims made in audio are suspect but not all, and the reasons that one item is snake oil to one person and a recommended component to another depends on a large number of genetic variables within individuals coupled with the different contexts in which the item is being used. It all boils down to one person's snake oil being another's audio nirvana. So I guess it is sensible to follow what one's own experience suggests. If it works for you, fine. If not then avoid it. However argument about who is right or who is wrong is rather pointless and gets down to the level of religious or political debate. Those who believe are not to be converted but those who do not should respect the beliefs of others.

John


Peace at AA

 

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Re: A Suggestion Why Some Observations Cannot be Scientifically Verified, posted on November 14, 2002 at 15:16:30
John Escallier
Audiophile

Posts: 4425
Location: Long Island
Joined: October 3, 2002
##However, as with mathematical proof, the validity of an argument depends upon the initial postulates and herein lies the tank trap in audio argument. Scientifically one should only accept postulates supported by scientific method before advancing further argument. However many arguments are based upon subjective, not objective analysis. To those who support the scientific method this is unacceptable as, from that viewpoint, further discussion is invalid as it is based on, to them, unproven assumptions.##

Absolutely. The problem I see here w/r to skin effect, is that since it has not ben clearly defined and tested (peer review verified), any further analysis is based on a house of cards.

Tank trap? either tubes, or WW2.

Why don't you, I, John Curl, and Jon Risch get into a heated debate over it? That way, I'll have no clue as to who said what?

TTFN, John

 

Not certain what you mean, posted on November 14, 2002 at 17:06:44
David Aiken
Audiophile

Posts: 5858
Location: Brisbane
Joined: September 25, 1999
"However, as with mathematical proof, the validity of an argument depends upon the initial postulates and herein lies the tank trap in audio argument. Scientifically one should only accept postulates supported by scientific method before advancing further argument. However many arguments are based upon subjective, not objective analysis."

What do you mean by "postulates supported by scientific method"? In principle the scientific method is what you use to work out whether something that has been postulated is the case. The postulate has to be stated in such a way that it can, in principle, be verified but at the time when it is first stated prior to testing it always has no scientific support whatsoever. That's not a problem - it's just that the starting point always lacks support. The idea is to use scientific method to determinet whether there is any support for the postulate or not and, if there is, whether there is enough to accept the postulate as true or not.

I find the next sentence even more confusing. Analysis is analysis, but it's the data which can be subjective or objective. Also, to my mind, what you do in developing a scientific proof is to mount and defend an argument using analysis of the data. Analysis is logical and follows strict rules - it's not the sort of thing that can be subjective or objective.

In principle, all observations - ie perceptions derived from our physical senses - should be verifiable. In practice there are problems at the threshold of sensation because that's not a clearly defined line given the fact that individuals vary in their sensory abilities. Further, just as it isn't possible to define a clear cut-off point for people in general to be able to observe something or not observe it, it isn't possible to define a clear cut-off for an individual because, even after we allow for variations in external circumstances, people simply aren't at their best all the time so a particular individual will do better at some times and others and will not be able to maintain "peak performance" reliably for any given period. With a lot of care in the setup and the use of sufficient numbers of subjects or observations, or both, it is possible to improve the quality of the results and get a more accurate picture of where the threshold of perception lies, but that can only reduce the size of the "greay area". It's simply not going to be possible to eliminate it entirely, just as it isn't possible to determine accurately whether a particular individual did or did not observe something at their personal threshold of perception at a particular time or not.

On the other hand, if you mean by "observation" something that contains an element of interpretation, then we're talking about something that isn't solely derived from sensory perception. That sort of thing cannot be scientifically verified because it includes the claimant's thoughts about the perception and we can't verify those thoughts at the individual level. On the other hand we can verify whether particular groups of people tend, as a group, to hold those thoughts or preferences using the scientific method. What that does, however, is simply show that people tend to hold or not hold such a view and that they tendency to hold or not hold it is a strong or weak tendency within that group. It does not prove that the view is true or correct.

Questions that use the word "best" or "better" can often be tricky in this regard. If you ask "what is the BEST (or Better) electrical conducter?", you can answer the question scientifically by testing a range of materials which conduct electricity and finding out which conducts the most. On the other hand if you ask "which is the BEST or BETTER speaker cable" you won't be able to answer the question scientifically because, even after allowing for relevant differences in amplifier and speaker which both interact with the cable, part of the answer is tied up with whether or not a listener will like what they hear and, if there are audible differences, they may well prefer one cable over another regardless of how it measures.

So, when it comes down to "one person's snake oil being another's audio nirvana", we're talking a combination of perception and preference. It's not just that one person may hear something and the other may not, it's also a matter of what each person prefers. It may be snake oil to one because they don't hear anything or equally because they do hear it but don't like it. On the other hand, nirvana requires that you both hear it and like it an awful lot. Yes, we do need to rely on our own hearing because that is what we personally experience, but then we choose also whether we want what we hear or not based on quite comlex sets of preferences and preferences by definition are never right or wrong - they simply define what we like and dislike.

David Aiken

 

Whoa!!!, posted on November 14, 2002 at 18:25:18
John Escallier
Audiophile

Posts: 4425
Location: Long Island
Joined: October 3, 2002
Aspirin time.

I personally believe that science must catch up to what is heard. Beyond that, I need either aspirin, or cheeze wiz...

TTFN, John

 

Some observations do not need or require verification of any sort., posted on November 14, 2002 at 18:41:37
jj
Someone's preference is just that, no more, no less.

No scientific (or other) justification is required.

Only when a scientific claim is made does scientific verification enter the arena.

Of course, not all ideas are scientifically verifiable, some because they are easily falsified, and some because they can not be falsified.
JJ - Philalethist and Annoyer of Bullies

 

But that's a different issue…, posted on November 14, 2002 at 23:13:36
David Aiken
Audiophile

Posts: 5858
Location: Brisbane
Joined: September 25, 1999
John's post was about verifying observations, or, in our case here, verifying what people hear.

Explaining it is a totally different issue. Keep some asprin spare for when that gets discussed :-)

David Aiken

 

An attempt to explain, posted on November 15, 2002 at 00:02:22
John C. - Aussie
Audiophile

Posts: 5146
Location: Northern Tasmania
Joined: November 9, 1999
<< What do you mean by "postulates supported by scientific method"? >>

Postulate: amps with lower distortion sound better
Verification: tests with a variety of listeners would be able to statistically verify this at levels of THD of 10% compared to 1%

Postulate: amps should have distortion less than 0.1% THD to be able to produce music more realistically
Verification: tests with an audience of audiophiles would soon verify this BUT if a random sample of the population was chosen there might not be a statistically verifiable result.

So, if one adopts a strict scientific approach one would not regard the postulate as having been shown to be true.
Consequent arguments about desirable levels of distortion would then be inadmissable.

But clearly the individual subjective reaction is different for different individuals so results will vary according to the individuals involved. So is it valid to proceed with arguments about levels of distortion if only some individuals can detect them?

I guess what I am trying (perhaps unsucessfully) to say is that many arguments in the field of audio are so riddled with varying perceptions that "logical" argument is difficult if not impossible.

On a mathematical level Euclidean Geometry is built upon one set of hypotheses but a different set yields an entirely different set of results.

Perhaps it is irrelevent to compare the mantra many hold about aspects of audio to that of mathematics but IMO a similar situation prevails. The basis of many audio arguments are often the result of the perceptions of person "A" (= basic postulates for "A"). To "A" the argument is valid as he/she is satisfied with the postulates forming the foundation of the argument. However "B" might have different perceptions to "A" of the same situation so they argue at cross purposes. Neither is right or wrong. It is just the foundations of their arguments differ so, logically, the results will differ.

Bottom line is that in dealing with some (but not all) subjective perceptions which vary, scientific method has little application. Thus arguments about tube vs SS etc are just that - arguments, with no hope of resolution because of differing subjective reactions, expectations etc. The logical conclusion is therefore to avoid such argument. Not sure I can scientifically verify that conclusion!!

So David, I think we are in general agreement. Human observation varies and is often not scientifically verifiable, particularly in audio. However I'm not sure about how much "Preference" and "Perception" can be delineated. Again it depends upon the individual and how heavily is a prejudice towards something. Many can justify a prejudice by their perception but this only justifies the prejudice to that person. Another's perception can result in an entirely different conclusion.

Maybe this discussion illustrates the point all too clearly. Each of us have a different perception of what is meant by a word or phrase -> pointless disagreement because of the different interpretations of what is said.

This is getting too deep. Time to pull out!!

John



Peace at AA

 

Re: Not certain what you mean, posted on November 15, 2002 at 00:08:54
In principle, all observations - ie perceptions derived from our physical senses - should be verifiable.

I think that statement is a fundamental underpinning of the scientific method and if we can’t all mutually agree on the truth of that statement at this forum, then I think it is going to be extremely difficult to make much progress.

Now a designer like Bob Crump may have sufficient confidence that differences he hears are due to actual audible sonic differences and he can attempt to correlate what he perceives with measured differences in order to enable him to improve the design and performance of his products.

Moreover, if I choose to select my cables and components using sighted auditions because I'm happy with the results then that’s my own personable business (or problem, depending on your perspective).

But if what we are fundamentally addressing here at the outset is wheather two different cables of similar gauge and length can produce audible sonic differences (probably the most heated debate in audio for the past 20 years), then the only way we can answer that question is to verify that our perceptions of actual audible sonic differences are in fact due to audible sonic stimuli, as jj would say.

From my observation, this discussion often gets clouded specifically for the reason Rod stated in this post:

All too often, the debate centers on DBT's validity when in reality it should focus on the specific DBT and it's methodology.

http://www.audioasylum.com/forums/prophead/messages/331.html

Personally, I'm of the opinion that any discussion of DBTs that doesn't focus primarily on specific DBTs and methodology is pretty much a waste of time. And I'll go even further and say that, again solely in my opinion, the discussion should focus primarily on professionally run DBTs, because most of us probably won't run them in our homes, and even if we do, we in all liklihood won't run them in a manner that will produce meaningful results.


 

Re: An attempt to explain, posted on November 15, 2002 at 00:23:18
I think this whole thing of perception, preference and scientific validation gets way more confused that it needs to.

I'll repeat a hypothetical I just used in another post. I have two sets of cables, A and B. I switch them in and out of my system, listening each time I make the switch knowing which cable I’m listening to, and then claim that they sound different. At that point I'm describing my "perception". Whether or not my perception of difference is due to actual audible sonic differences between A and B can only be "scientifically validated" or verified through control testing, and even at that, only to a certain statistical confidence level.

If I say I like cable A better than cable B because A sounds better to me, that is my "preference", and it doesn't matter if the difference I'm hearing between the two cables is really due to actual audible sonic differences between the two cables.

It seems to me that the distinction between perception, preference and validation is just as simple as this. Moreover, I think it is important we not blur this distinction because we already have more issues, unresolved debates and obstacles in the "validation" arena than we can handle, and don't need to be unnecessarily complicating the matter further.

 

Re: An attempt to explain, posted on November 15, 2002 at 06:59:58
Tom N.
Audiophile

Posts: 19
Joined: September 29, 2000
Oh no, we need to question yet another postulate that you have injected into the discussion.

"tests with an audience of audiophiles would soon verify this BUT if a random sample of the population was chosen there might not be a statistically verifiable result."

The postulate is that "Audiophiles" are somehow gifted with more accurate ability in detecting distortion then the the average member of the population.

I do not believe that has been any work performed that would show this statement to be true. Not only that, it would be highly difficult to agree on what an Audiophile (beyond a dictionary definition which would be anyone who has an interest in audio). Audiophiles may talk about golden ears, but an audiophile is not automatically a golden ear, and a golden ear is not automatically an audiophile. I see no reason why golden ears would be limited to only those interested in audio. If they exist and certainly they do since there should be members of the population sample occurring at all end of the spectrum, including those with the ability to hear beyond a normalized range for humans, or be able to detect difference in sound because of greater resolving capabilities, there is no reason to think they significantly fall into the Audiophile category.

The idea that audiophiles have innately better hearing may just be hubris on the part of its members.

Tom N.

 

Re: An attempt to explain, posted on November 15, 2002 at 08:18:13
The idea that audiophiles have innately better hearing may just be hubris on the part of its members.

I very much agree. People who claim special hearing abilities and demand that we take their description of what they are hearing as an accurate measurement of actual audible differences disturb me. It is this kind of thing that is responsible for much of the emotional charge this discussion often creates.

 

Indeed, however...., posted on November 15, 2002 at 13:15:02
Monstrous Mike
Audiophile

Posts: 571
Location: Ottawa
Joined: November 10, 2002
If I prefer Coke over Pepsi because I like the color or the Coke can better, then it is end of discussion. That cannot be argued.

However, if I prefer Coke over Pepsi because it tastes better, then should I not be able to tell the two apart in a blind taste test? Presumably there would be something about Pepsi I didn't like or something about Coke that makes it taste better. I may or may not know the ingredient which is causing my preference and I probably don't care.

But if I take a blind taste test and cannot tell them apart, where does that leave me? Looking pretty dumb, I guess.

 

Re: Indeed, however...., posted on November 15, 2002 at 13:25:09
Ted Smith
Manufacturer

Posts: 10297
Location: Seattle
Joined: December 29, 2000
Howdy

But did the blind taste test use drinks from a can, bottle or fountain. How long did they leave the drinks out after they were poured, what temp were the drinks served at. Had you just eaten a chocolate bar…

A bad test is worthless.

I trust my taste buds a lot more than I trust (most) people to set up a good blind test.

Same for my ears.

-Ted

 

Re: An attempt to explain, posted on November 15, 2002 at 14:23:01
David Aiken
Audiophile

Posts: 5858
Location: Brisbane
Joined: September 25, 1999
OK, now we're moving on.

First, re postulates supported by scientific method, none of the postulates (usually called hypotheses) you mention are supported by scientific method at the time they're made. Taking your first example:

"Postulate: amps with lower distortion sound better
Verification: tests with a variety of listeners would be able to statistically verify this at levels of THD of 10% compared to 1%"

At the time it is first proposed, the hypothesis "amps with lower distortion sound better" has no scientific support. You may have reasons for thinking so (personal experience, anecdotal evidence) but no-one has tried to find out whether or not this is a reliable statement. We have one problem with the hypothesis and that is the use of the word "better" which in this case amounts to a statement of preference. Much better initially to hypothesise that "amps with lower distortion sound different" so that what we're trying to verify is that people hear something different when listening to an amp with lower distortion.

Now, where the scientific method comes in is at the stage of what you called "verification". You make a predicition that will be true if the hypothesis is correct and, preferably, only if the hypothesis is correct (if it can be true if the hypothesis is not correct you either need to find another prediction that is only true when the hypothesis is correct or, if necessary, a set of two or more predictions that can only all be true together when the hypothesis is correct) and then set up a test where the only variable is the variable in the prediction. Here you'd probably want to restate the test for verification as "listeners can hear a difference between 10% and 1% THD" and you design a system so that you can vary the THD only using the same source, amp and speakers (can't change the amp because that will change other factors besides THD) and run your tests. Actually what you do when testing is to set up a counter hypothesis - that listeners won't hear a difference - and then try to show that the counter hypothesis is false but we won't go into that sort of area here.

Now that's fine for distortion levels of the sort you've mentioned but we have a hypothesis that says there's an audible difference as distortion is lowered. What we also might be interested in are a couple of more difficult questions - first, what's the smallest difference in THD that people can hear (ie can they tell the difference between 10% and 10.1% or 10.05% or…) and second, what is the lowest level of THD that is audible since lowering THD below that level should then produce no difference in sound whatsoever so customers would then have no reason to spend more in order to get something with a lower THD spec knowing they couldn't hear it.

It's much harder to answer those 2 questions than the original one since now we're working at the limits of what people can hear and individual difference becomes critical. It's relatively easy to define levels that everyone with normal hearing can hear and even to define a level that nobody with normal hearing can hear, but in between there we have the grey area I spoke about where some people with normal hearing will hear it and some won't. Note my restriction to people of normal hearing which requirs you to test the subjects first. If you include everyone, you include people with substandard hearing including some who are almost deaf and who will not be able to hear any difference at all at levels where most people are clearly hearing things. If you set your audibility limit high enough to include people with sub-standard hearing, it becomes useless as a real guide to the sorts of things we're interested in.

That answers one of your questions "is it valid to proceed with arguments about levels of distortion if only some individuals can detect them?" You answer the question based on individuals with normal hearing because they're the bulk of the population. There's no problem for the people with better than average hearing - apart from the fact that they may complain about hearing things most other people don't - and the people with sub-standard hearing won't be challenged any more than they are elsewhere in life.

Now, to get back to your use of the word "better" in the hypothesis which I carefully edited out for the reasons I gave. Once you've proved a difference in sound exists, you can repeat the same sort of test and ask people whether they think the sound is better. Note that we are now asking a question about what people think, not about the sound. That's a sure sign of a preference and we know that different people have different preferences. In testing this, we have to ensure that the levels of THD involved are audible - if we drop below the threshold of audibility and the subjects can't hear a difference their answers are useless. Also, we're now not trying to predict whether people will prefer it or not - we want to know what they prefer so it's somewhat like holding an election. Sometimes the result is a landslide for one view and at other times it's very close. The important thing to note is that the question is no longer about an observation but about an attitude to what is observed, and that we have to ensure that the thing is observed in the test to be able to rely on the answers we get.

Youre next point was "I guess what I am trying (perhaps unsucessfully) to say is that many arguments in the field of audio are so riddled with varying perceptions that "logical" argument is difficult if not impossible." I think the issue here is the confusion about observations and attitudes I discussed in the previous paragraph. As long as we're clear about what we're talking about and how we test it, there is no problem about following a logical process to get answers to the questions and the type of answer we get depends on the type of question. Of course, once we've got the answer people tend to use it for their own purposes and if they don't understand the differences observations and preferences, they're likely to try and use the answers in ways that they shouldn't be used. That definitely isn't logical but the problem there is not with science or the scientific method, or even with the results. It's to do with people not understanding of the nature of the information they're reading and using. You mentioned people understanding words differently and I'll deal with that a bit later but I don't think that's the problem as you'll eventually see.

So the first big thing is to understand the difference between an observation, which relates purely to what can or can't be sensed by a sense organ, and an attitude or preference which is something that we think about our observations.

That brings us back to one of JJs perennial points that preferences don't need the support or otherwise of tests. Preferences are just our preferences and questions like whether tubes sound better than SS are about preferences. No amount of tests can prove that one sounds better than the other. The most you can do by testing is to show what percentage of people prefer one and what percentage prefers the other, and there's no right or wrong about that. Even if 99% preferred tubes, there is nothing WRONG in someone preferring SS but, if 99% did prefer tubes the SS lover should definitely be prepared to be considered a social deviant or even worse :-)

The next big thing is the subjective/objective distinction. People tend to interpret it as subjective meaning what an individual experiences and objective as what test instruments show. It's not quite that simple and we couldn't know what a test instrument showed if we didn't observe the meter so that would make reading of the meter subjective and we'd never have anything objective if that were the case. I'm probably not too clear on the distinction as I should be, but the way I'd define it is that objective relates to things that people can agree about without arguing definitions, so reporting whether you heard something 3 times or 5 times would be an objective report. On the other hand, preferences and attitudes are by definition subjective - they relate to the subject's personally and not to other people. Finally there's the situation where you're called on to describe an observation in terms of a perceptual quality like colour or, more importantly for us here, an auditory quality. Sometimes that's easy and sometimes, if it's a subtly distinction, it's very hard. The more subtle it is, the more the consistency of judgements by the test panel relies on them having precisely the same understanding of the nature of the quality and the more likely it is that responses will vary. So there's a subjective element in the characterisation or description of what is observed and this element will vary in scale and importance to the researcher depending on the distinction concerned. You keep talking about "subjective perceptions" as if they're observations but really, most of the time, I think you're really referring to attitudes or preferences.

So John, I don't think we're in quite as much agreement as you think though there is definitely some agreement. I think, and the whole of science is founded on the belief that observation is verifiable. I don't think observations vary as much as you seem to think though I definitely agree that preferences and attitudes do. I also don't think we vary as much in what we think words mean - there's definitely a very strong commonality in that or communication would break down very quickly. I think the problem isn't so much with words as with concepts and people need training with concepts. If you don't have scientific training you tend not to understand scientific concepts just as if you don't have psychological or educational training you don't understand psychological or educational concepts. Technical words are really "jargon" and problems arise when a word has a common use which is well understood and a jargon use, or even worse, two or more different jargon uses relating to different fields. That's when we really start to get confused by what someone is saying.

I think, if I remember correctly, your professional background is education so you'll have that jargon and probably some psych jargon. My background is in philosophy and psych via a BA and then in occupational health and safety by post graduate training so I've got some jargon in common and some different jargon. And here we're talking hearing and perception and test design plus the basis of scientific proof. I've got a bit of the jargon in some of those areas due to the sorts of research I had to study and do when doing my OH&S qualifications but I'm definitely not as fluent as someone like JJ who works in that sort of field, but I think Iunderstand a bit about the basics of scientific method and proof and I think what I've said above is a reasonable stab at responding to what you're saying from a hard science perspective.

David Aiken

 

Err, no, Mike, posted on November 15, 2002 at 18:12:19
jj
If you like something, having full knowledge of the whole gestalt around it, what's the problem? "I like this wire, it sounds good to me" can be understood as the whole gestalt resulting from the wire, its colour, the phase of the moon, its price, and everything else.

What's the problem with that?

At the end of the day, the only point is satisfaction, yes?

I only see a problem when somebody jumps up and makes a scientific claim.
JJ - Philalethist and Annoyer of Bullies

 

Re: Not certain what you mean, posted on November 16, 2002 at 00:56:36
jeff mai
Audiophile

Posts: 640
Joined: February 6, 2001
>>>In principle, all observations - ie perceptions derived from our physical senses - should be verifiable.<<<

>>I think that statement is a fundamental underpinning of the scientific method and if we can’t all mutually agree on the truth of that statement at this forum, then I think it is going to be extremely difficult to make much progress.<<

Rather than indirectly dismissing anyone who might disagree with this statement, why don't you explain what the statement means to you and why its truth is self evident?

The way I see it nature is under no obligation to make itself verifiable.

 

Re: An attempt to explain, posted on November 16, 2002 at 01:08:03
jeff mai
Audiophile

Posts: 640
Joined: February 6, 2001
>>I'll repeat a hypothetical I just used in another post. I have two sets of cables, A and B. I switch them in and out of my system, listening each time I make the switch knowing which cable I’m listening to, and then claim that they sound different. At that point I'm describing my "perception". Whether or not my perception of difference is due to actual audible sonic differences between A and B can only be "scientifically validated" or verified through control testing, and even at that, only to a certain statistical confidence level.<<

Yes! It can be verified through control testing. However, failure to verify a sonic difference during control testing is a *substantially* less meaningful result. Anyone professing strict adherence to scientific method must admit this.

 

Re: Not certain what you mean, posted on November 16, 2002 at 06:25:14
The way I see it nature is under no obligation to make itself verifiable.

Of course it's not, but we're talking about our perceptions of nature, not nature itself, and the point is our perceptions of nature should be verifiable. Given sufficient knowledge and research, it seems to me, we should be able to isolate the source of any perception.

 

Re: An attempt to explain, posted on November 16, 2002 at 06:29:55
However, failure to verify a sonic difference during control testing is a *substantially* less meaningful result. Anyone professing strict adherence to scientific method must admit this.

Failure to verify in one particular test has little meaning to the borad question of whether cables of similar gauge and length can sound differenct because it is a test of particular cables being testing in a particular system. However, if the protocol of the test is valid, failure to verify, it would seem to me, is just as valid for those particular cables in that particular system, as would be verification.

 

The answer is..., posted on November 16, 2002 at 07:57:22
sgb
Audiophile

Posts: 1418
Joined: August 8, 2001
But if I take a blind taste test and cannot tell them apart, where does that leave me? Looking pretty dumb, I guess.

I don't think it leaves you *Looking pretty dumb* unless you are in a supermarket where Coke is on sale for half-price and Pepsi isn't, and you still buy the Pepsi.

This whole business of DBT is a little overblown, judging by the heated discsussions below. It seems to me as if it were scientifically proven that a certain cable design were 100% accurate, then the only motivation for designing a cable outside the bounds of that accurate one would be to provide a cable to audiophiles that wasn't 100% accurate. I can see the ads for such cables in my mind's eye now: Our Cable is 110% accurate. Don't settle for less.

Another thing to consider is that while science may be able to demonstrate some audio component or cable to be more accurate than another, the initial point made about the differing degree of and/or the approach that individuals take towards perception render the results of any scientifically conducted DBT moot.

 

Re: Not certain what you mean, posted on November 16, 2002 at 08:16:11
sgb
Audiophile

Posts: 1418
Joined: August 8, 2001
Personally, I'm of the opinion that any discussion of DBTs that doesn't focus primarily on specific DBTs and methodology is pretty much a waste of time. And I'll go even further and say that, again solely in my opinion, the discussion should focus primarily on professionally run DBTs, because most of us probably won't run them in our homes, and even if we do, we in all liklihood won't run them in a manner that will produce meaningful results.

These meaningul results might appear in some publication (perhaps the audiophile equivalent of Consumer Reports) discussing the metodology used in testing and the benefits of the product to the user?

The way I see it nature is under no obligation to make itself verifiable.

Of course it's not, but we're talking about our perceptions of nature, not nature itself, and the point is our perceptions of nature should be verifiable. Given sufficient knowledge and research, it seems to me, we should be able to isolate the source of any perception.

And by isolating the source of any perception, could one assume that the results might offer either X or Y as valid? (Assuming X and Y have different properties.)

(I'm not trying to be either flippant or argumentative by asking these two questions.)

 

Re: An attempt to explain, posted on November 16, 2002 at 08:30:27
sgb
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If I say I like cable A better than cable B because A sounds better to me, that is my "preference", and it doesn't matter if the difference I'm hearing between the two cables is really due to actual audible sonic differences between the two cables.

This statement is unclear to me. Are you suggesting that the actual audible sonic differences between the two cables leading you to your preference could be the result of something external, such as the color of their encasements?

 

Re: An attempt to explain, posted on November 16, 2002 at 10:00:27
Are you suggesting that the actual audible sonic differences between the two cables leading you to your preference could be the result of something external, such as the color of their encasements?

The short answer is yes. If I choose my cables based on sighted auditioning (which I in fact do), there is no way for me to know for sure that I'm basing my decision on actual sonic differences, as opposed to color preference, advertising, reviews, recommendations or any other factor other than actual audible sonic differences. The only way I could possibly hope to know for sure that it is actual audible sonic differences that I'm basing my choice on would be for me to make the choice under control testing where the only possible factor I was basing that decision on was the audible differences.

 

Re: Not certain what you mean, posted on November 16, 2002 at 10:53:43
First of all, I don’t see your question as flippant in any respect. I’m far more concerned that I’ll proceed down the road with a faulty belief or opinion, based on lack of information, faulty information or flawed reasoning, than I am with having my comments challenged or questioned. I’m a lay person with respect to all of this and I’m here to learn, not to teach.

These meaningul results might appear in some publication (perhaps the audiophile equivalent of Consumer Reports) discussing the metodology used in testing and the benefits of the product to the user?

I’m not sure it’s that readily available, but I’m sure that people such as jj certainly have the experience and background necessary to conduct the best possible tests within whatever, if any, limitations currently exist in the state of the art of DBTs.

And by isolating the source of any perception, could one assume that the results might offer either X or Y as valid? (Assuming X and Y have different properties.)

Theoretically, that would seem to me to be the case. However, I would have to leave it to experts, such as jj, to tell me if in fact the particular test was reliable enough to reach that conclusion.

 

Re: Not certain what you mean, posted on November 16, 2002 at 11:53:11
David Aiken
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Posts: 5858
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"The way I see it nature is under no obligation to make itself verifiable."

\What verifiability requires in science is simply repeatability. There's an underlying assumption that nature acts according to laws and not randomly or capriciously so the same set of circumstances or causes should always lead to the same result. If it didn't, we could never work out what was going on or build something that would work reliably over time.

Scientific proof relies on the fact that observations and test results are repeatable. If observations aren't repeatable, you're not observing quite the same thing and if results aren't repeatable, the prediction on which the test was designed isn't reliable. You can't build on that. On the other hand, if the observations and test results are repeatable, what you've verified -apart from the observations or results - is that nature is acting consistently and it's that which underlies the whole of science.

David Aiken

 

No!, posted on November 16, 2002 at 12:15:41
David Aiken
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Proof in science is not quite as simple as people seem to think. There are rules and standards which have to be satisfied.

One rule is that no amount of observation can demonstrate that something definitely does not exist. So, the fact that there is no evidence that anyone has seen a unicorn in the last few centuries does not prove that unicorns don't exist or that they are now extinct. It does, however, make it extremely likely that they don't exist and even a normally rash person would be unlikely to bet on finding a unicorn.

On the other hand, it only requires the production of 1 unicorn (to allow for verifiable observation) to show that unicorns do exist. Of course, if they couldn't find any other unicorns the researchers would probably kill and mount the one they had so that they could really prove the point. Pity we can't do that with audible differences :-)

So proof really requires only one substantiated ovservation here, though we would normally require other researchers to duplicate those observations elsewhere if we were talking about hearing a difference in cables rather than sighting a unicorn, but no amount of testing which fails to demonstrate a difference can conclusively prove that differences don't exist.

In practice, however, if you can't demonstrate the existence of a difference, researchers examine the test conditions looking for things that may have masked the demonstration of a difference, try constructing some other test designs that might work better and give that a go, and if it still can't be shown after a reasonable number of genuine attempts, they stop testing. At that stage they probably definitely BELIEVE rather than KNOW that there is no difference but improvements in knowledge elsewhere and/or better test instruments may cause them to revisit things at a later stage.

Non confirmatory results do have a different standing than confirmatory results.

David Aiken

 

Re: No!, posted on November 16, 2002 at 12:26:11
I'm not sure if there is a mix up in communication here, but I can't find anything in your post that I would disagree with.

 

Re: No!, posted on November 16, 2002 at 13:50:29
David Aiken
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You said, as your final sentence in your post: "However, if the protocol of the test is valid, failure to verify, it would seem to me, is just as valid for those particular cables in that particular system, as would be verification. "

My point is that there is a sense in which failure to verify is not as valid as verification. Putting it a bit simplistically, verification represents proof but failure to verify does not represent disproof, it merely means that the hypothesis remains unproven. Verification removes doubt, failure to verify still leaves doubt as to whether the hypothesis is false or the test failed for some reason. When failure to verify occurs, the nature of the results and the number of times that verification has failed to be achieved can both serve to reduce the level of doubt, perhaps even to extremely small levels, but there still remains the in principle possibility that the hypothesis was correct and the test or tests have failed for some reason.

David Aiken

 

Re: No!, posted on November 16, 2002 at 15:17:17
David:

Just to try and be clear (and I still don't think we disagree), my sentence was meant to apply solely to the results of that particular test and solely with respect to the specific items being tested, and not to the implications of such test regarding proof or disproof of a particular hypothesis. Also I was assuming a perfect test and protocol so that the null result was totally reliable (a situation I agree in practice can never be achieved).

I fully admit my sentence was not well crafted and easily subject to misinterpretaton.

 

Re: Err, no, Mike, posted on November 16, 2002 at 15:47:01
Monstrous Mike
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There is no problem, per se, with having a preference. That was not my point. My point is, if you state why you have a preference, like Coke tasting better than Pepsi, and cannot even show you can tell the difference between the two in blind testing, then that says something about your credibility.

 

Or about the test. [nt], posted on November 16, 2002 at 16:16:55
Ted Smith
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Posts: 10297
Location: Seattle
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.

 

Indeed. (mt), posted on November 16, 2002 at 16:56:29
jj
I said MT.
JJ - Philalethist and Annoyer of Bullies

 

Re: Not certain what you mean, posted on November 16, 2002 at 20:33:42
jeff mai
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>>There's an underlying assumption that nature acts according to laws and not randomly or capriciously so the same set of circumstances or causes should always lead to the same result.<<

If we do not understand the laws we cannot construct the tests very well. A lot happens in our brains when we process a sound. I'm not sure we could say that we understand all of it.

The act of deciding which speaker cable (or whatever) I prefer in a sighted, home listening situation is certainly a different mental process than doing the same in a blind test. Do we know well enough how the brain processes sound to say that the blind test removes biases related to sight and has no other effects on the test? I don't believe we do.

 

Re: No!, posted on November 16, 2002 at 23:50:51
David Aiken
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All results apply to the particular test and each test always has an hypothesis, but the results of a test verifying the hypothesis are generalisable while the results of a test which doesn't verify the hypothesis aren't generalisable.

What you actually test is the counter hypothesis which is the opposite of the hypothesis. So, if you're testing for audible differences between two cables and your hypothesis is that audible differences do exist, the counter hypothesis is "there are no audible differences between the cables". The only way you can fail to show the counter hypothesis is by actually showing there is an audible difference. So failing to verify the counter hypothesis is conclusive and verifies the hypothesis that there is a difference. If you end up with a result which fails to falsify the counter hypothesis, you're left wondering whether the failure was due to there being no audible difference or being due to the fact that the test wasn't capable of demonstrating the existence of a difference that was there.

Remember the requirements for repeatability and the assumption that nature acts consistently. If the counter hypothesis fails and there is only one way it can fail, then you can expect all future tests to return the same result. That's why failing to verify the counter hypothesis would confirm the hypothesis and demonstrate the existence of an audible difference. It's also why you can generalise from that outcome - it can only occur if the hypothesis is true.

On the other hand, if you can't falsify the counter hypothesis, you're always left with 2 options for why you failed and you can't eliminate either one of those options. It's something like trying to show that there are different things on the 2 sides to a coin by tossing it - the fact that it always comes up "heads" in a series of tosses doesn't demonstrate that there is no "tail" side, no matter how long the run of heads goes on for. You may have a two headed penny or you could just have "lucked into" a very long run of heads and you can never resolve which one it is by continuing to toss the coin because you haven't shown that the coin has 2 heads and it must always remain possible that it could come up "tails" on the next toss, just as it's always possible in principle that the test could verify the hypothesis if you ran it another time. It's the inability to eliminate this possibility of a positive result that prevents you from generalising from the outcome here.

There are ways of disproving some things, but it isn't by observation. You have to demonstrate that it's impossible in principle for the thing to occur because it's logically incompatible with the accepted theory. That still leaves open the possibility that the theory/accepted law is wrong but shifts the onus of proof so that anyone trying to prove the thing has to disprove the theory or, at the very least, prove that an exception to the theory exists.

David Aiken

 

Re: An attempt to explain, posted on November 17, 2002 at 06:34:29
Posts: 10307
Location: Lancashire.
Joined: January 21, 2001
"Postulate: amps with lower distortion sound better"
"Verification: tests with a variety of listeners would be able to statistically verify this at levels of THD of 10% compared to 1%".


You do your test and 70% of listeners prefer 10% THD.

The conclusions could therefore be:

1. Listeners prefer distortion.
2. Listeners prefer 10% distortion when listening through the test system which is obviously imperfect.
3. Distortion enhances the listening experience.
4. The source benefits from distortion.
5. The speakers benefit from distortion.
6. The room benefits from distortion.
7. The test is flawed as it is illogical for listeners to prefer more distortion.
8. A majority of listeners have no internal reference for what 'live' music sounds like and cannot accurately judge how close a reproduction is to the reference of 'live'.
9. A majority of listeners are insincere at giving their impressions during tests.
10. You get the general idea?


Although I have no training in the audio field, I do with psychology and feel that the most difficult aspect of coming to concrete conclusions is that of devising tests which cannot be contaminated by variables which make the test results ambiguous and open to differing interpretations reliant on the individual's own experiences/bias.

I suppose the addition of more punctuation wouldn't have gone amiss in the last paragraph but what the hell......

Best Regards,
Chris Redmond.

 

Fer chrissakes, I'm assuming a perfect test..., posted on November 17, 2002 at 09:00:16
Monstrous Mike
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We're talking generalities and principles, not whether the taste test can be conducted perfectly.

Can you comment on my hypothesis instead of whether a taste test can be done without bias? Please...

 

I believe I am on topic., posted on November 17, 2002 at 09:23:09
Ted Smith
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Posts: 10297
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Howdy

I believe this is the crux of the problem. You seem to prefer to believe that the subjects are fooling themselves. I seem to believe that the testers are.

You are the one who uses words like credibility describing the subjects. I wonder, who has the most to gain or loose in a test, the testers or the subjects? Now I don't really believe that there are that many disingenuous testers out there, good tests are just had to design. I'm just saying that if a test gives a non intuitive answer, IMO the design of the test should be given at least as much scrutiny as the credibility of the subjects.

-Ted

 

Ok. YOU define the perfect test., posted on November 17, 2002 at 21:22:37
jj
Hmm.
JJ - Philalethist and Annoyer of Bullies

 

The Perfect Test....defined..., posted on November 18, 2002 at 07:54:34
Monstrous Mike
Audiophile

Posts: 571
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Hey, are you annoying me because I am a bully?

Anyways, back to business. The Perfect Test is the taste test between Coke and Pepsi where all external factors have been eliminated (liquid temperature is the same, same carbonation, same glass, etc.) and the number of test runs is infinity to eliminate statistical errors.

So I'll repeat my question. If you claim you like Coke more than Pepsi because it tastes better, and you cannot tell the difference between the two in a Perfect Test, where does that leave you.

 

Re: An attempt to explain, posted on November 18, 2002 at 08:06:10
Monstrous Mike
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Posts: 571
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I think we can agree that we are talking about testing the hypothesis that cables do affect sound. So a test of this hypothesis can be valid, regardless of the outcome of the test. Agreed so far?

Repeated positive results that show cables can sound different are required to validate the hypothesis. If there are repeated negative results, however, it does not invalidate the hypothesis.

Therefore, the two possible outcomes of hypothesis testing, the positive or the negative, carry a different weight when applied to supporting the hypothesis. And of course, any result which is applied to the hypothesis must be from a valid test.

Clear as mud, huh?

 

Study how taste works., posted on November 18, 2002 at 09:34:35
jj
Look up terms like "mouth sealers" in flavour chemistry.

Then you'll see why the test you refer to is anything but perfect.

Taste tests have an enormous "hangover" in flavour effects due to the chemestry of how you taste, and in what order.

Just for hoots, see what happens when the drink with the pepsin comes first vs. second.

The ear doesn't have the same kind of history.
JJ - Philalethist and Annoyer of Bullies

 

Re: An attempt to explain, posted on November 18, 2002 at 10:21:39
Clear as mud, huh?

No, you are quite clear and I fully agree. Moreover, I have never seen what I would consider a valid challenge to this proposition. Language and misinterpretation often seem to get in the way when discussing all of this, but from a scientific viewpoint, I wish we could at least get basic agreement on fundamental principles such as this.

If I'm overlooking something, I'm open to comments.

 

No, Mike, posted on November 19, 2002 at 16:57:50
Norm
Reviewer

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Having participated in several single and double blind experiments, I distrust their validity. I do not think the task assigned corresponds to listening to music. Long ago I participated in a double blind preamp test in which the Bozak preamp was pick as best by the designers of many early other preamp designs. I think you do not listen the same in this context as in normal listening. DBT does not certify the scientific method.

 

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