Propeller Head Plaza Technical and scientific discussion of amps, cables and other topics.

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What Constitues A "Properly Designed" Amp?

Posted by thetubeguy1954 (A) on April 13, 2007 at 06:31:53

Everyone knows that Peter Aczel believes it is impossible for two amplifiers to sound different at matched levels if each has high input impedance, low output impedance, flat frequency response, low distortion, low noise floor, and is not clipped. Without arguing the validity of Aczel's beliefs I'm curious as to how it's been deteremined when any of these criteria have been satisfied. So I would like to know:

1) What figure represents what high input impedance is?
2) What figure represents what low output impedance is?
3) What level of deviation +/- 1dB, +/- 3dB, +/- 5dB etc. and what range of frequencies 20-20Khz, 10-100Khz, 1-1Mhz etc constitutes flat frequency response?
4) What figure represents what low distortion is?
5) What figure represents what low noise floor is?

Once you've answered 1-5 Please answer these 5 additional questions...

1) Who deteremined these figures represent the acceptable or correct answers?
2) Is there detailed, documented proof that these are in fact the acceptable or correct answers and are they truly scientifically supported? Or are these figures arbitrarily reached?
3) Are there peer reviewed published studies available that proves these answers are in fact truly scientifically supported and agrees with the results of the detailed, documented proof? If not why are these figures still accepted?
4) Are there peer reviewed published studies available that disproves these answers are in fact truly scientifically supported and disagrees with the results of the detailed, documented proof? If there are, why are these studies rejected?
5) Has anyone taken a solidstate amp and made the input impedance, output impedance, frequency response, distortion, and noise floor match an SET, to see if it is impossible for these two amplifiers to sound different at matched levels and when not clipped?

I personally believe amps sound different. Yet I've heard some amps sound similar to other amps I've heard. I have a hypothesis, that a more correct statement would be it is improbable for two amplifiers to sound very different at matched levels if each has the same or very close input impedance, the same or very close output impedance, the same or very close frequency response, the same or very close distortion, the same or very close noise floor, and is not clipped. I honestly don't know what the correct answer is, but based on previous experiences this hypothesis "seems" more correct, if these criteria have the effect on sound that Aczel implies they do.

Thetubeguy1954

"If you thought that science was certain - well, that is just an error on your part.” Richard Feynman theoretical physicist, 1918-1988

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