In Reply to: Re: Does anyone really think this? posted by Jim Austin on February 9, 2007 at 07:26:53:
Let's take a look at the full extract shall we (emphasis added):
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I have seen arguments that SE arrangements or those with no overall feedback, 'may have higher distortion, but this does not matter as they preserver harmonic content, and hence the timbre(sound quality) of the music.' Alas as the above results show, this argument simply does not hold water unless we listen to one note at a time and avoid anything but the simplest chords using perfect integer ratios!
--For starters as quote is not attributed to anyone in particular how do we know that it isn't just a paraphrase representing the writer's opinion of the views of SET advocates, or for that matter just something that some non-technical audiophile wrote in an internet post?
More importantly however the quote doesn't actually *attribute* the preservation of harmonic content to the "SE arrangements" higher distortion, does it?... yet that certainly appears to be *your* interpretation, i.e.:
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I mean, serious people? I'm referring to this:
>>"...as they preserver harmonic content, and hence the timbre(sound quality) of the music." <<Again, does any real, serious person think that harmonic distortion equates with "preserv(ing) harmonic content"? It seems to me a remarkably simplistic--and transparently incorrect--claim, and I notice that it is not attributed to anyone. Is there any citation in the original?
--What gives? Is this a case of "When in Rome"?... you certainly come off like just another ranting PH "objective" indignant-eophile!
How about a little more care in the future?
TIA
No Guru, No Method, No Teacher
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Follow Ups
- Re: Does anyone really think this? - bjh 08:02:43 02/09/07 (4)
- I don't think... - Jim Austin 08:21:33 02/09/07 (3)
- Re: I don't think... - bjh 09:01:11 02/09/07 (2)
- If you could only see... - Jim Austin 09:04:30 02/09/07 (1)
- Please! - bjh 09:30:20 02/09/07 (0)