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Does anyone really think this?

I mean, serious people? I'm referring to this:

>>"...as they preserver harmonic content, and hence the timbre(sound quality) of the music." <<

Again, does any real, serious person think that harmonic distortion equates with "preserv(ing) harmonic content"? It seems to me a remarkably simplistic--and transparently incorrect--claim, and I notice that it is not attributed to anyone. Is there any citation in the original?

To state the obvious, "preserving the harmonic content" means reproducing precisely what's on the recording--harmonic content and all.

Support for such the disputed claim would require showing NOT that SETs have a nice distortion signature, but that other types of amplication REDUCE harmonic content MORE than SETS do. But a low-distortion amplifier with reasonably wide bandwidth and accurate frequency response will reproduce the harmonics on the recording as well as it records the fundamentals--and will do so with greater accuracy than a higher-distortion amp.

What am I missing?

Jim Austin

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