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RE: Let me get this out of my system...

It wasn't "double blind" (which would imply neither the observer nor the experimenter knew what is being tested), and it wasn't ABX, simply AB, hence subject to all sorts of biases.

What is the procedural merit of an experimenter not knowing what he/she is doing?

I have to confess I'm not even sure (heck, probably haven't a clue) what an ABX test is and that reading up on the technique generally leaves me more confused than I was before I started. "AB vs ABX" strikes me as a phoney distinction between two equally suspect procedures.

I'd like to know the rationale for the apparent assumption that perceptible differences can be detected reliably using only one sampling procedure. What little I've read on the subject seems also to assume that subject populations and the like do not matter.

And so on - but I'm happy to be proven wrong.





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