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Re: Oh one other thing Andy_C

"How did you accomplish this? And how did you arrive at your conclusion?"

How do you think I did it? With digital equalization, duh!

"You are well and truly wrong, your comments do not take into the "equal loudness curves", a small variation in the 1-5KHz region will be much more audible than a larger SPL variation in bass or lower midrange, ironically there is a prepoderance of speakers' whose input impedance rise in the selfsame region especially in the 1-5kHz region. Consequently, small amplifier induced SPL variations that invariably occur in this region in respect of high output amplifiers will have a BIG EFFECT on the overall sound of the system."

What the Hell are you talking about? I said I equalized the two amps to the same target curve. What about that don't you get? Besides even without this the variations of the amp are much less than say with position of the speakers, damping in the room, geometry of the room, nature of the walls, type and amount of furniture etc. Nevermind though you obviously can't read when I say equalized to the same target curve.

You didn't answer MY question though, do you do ANYTHING to correct for these so called horrible FR variations in amplifiers? So I guess I take it more serious than you and all you do is give lip service on this forum...as usual. I guess you would rather get only 0.1 db variation from your amp but +- 10db in your room response.

I would rather have +- 0.5 db from my amp but +- 1.5 db in my room from 125Hz to 10Khz (I roll off the highs gently above 10Khz as recommended in rooms to give a more even power response. Also, I find the bass too lean if it is equalized totally flat so there is a few db bump below 100 Hz). It wouldn't matter though if my amp was +- 3db (an extreme case and nearly no amps are this bad) because with the equalization I can hit the same target curve.

"Only partially correct...which is a much smaller effect anyway."

Why do you continue to assume this? Where is your proof that this is so? Is it because the FR graph is much easier for you to read? Is it because it is easier for you to understand? Your downplaying of distortions tells me you don't have a good grasp on this stuff.

".. FR variations will dramatically alter perception of the dynamic capabilities of the amplifier/speaker combo."

Maybe but how is this applicable if we are equalizing two amps to the same target curve? You now have the same FR for both so any perceptual differences in dynamics are not due directly to FR. If you think they are then you had better come up with a good explanation.

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