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Speaker Asylum: RE: Why is sensitivity measured at 1000Hz? by das@soundstage.com General speaker questions for audio and home theater. |
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In Reply to: Why is sensitivity measured at 1000Hz? posted by Craiger56 on July 22, 2012 at 09:22:30:
Hi,
Perhaps at a time someone did that and couldn't do anything but a single tone at certain frequency, so they picked 1kHz because it sounded nice.
But, as someone already mentioned, it's not necessarily measured at that -- and we certainly don't measure it like that. We take an average from 300Hz to 3000Hz, which works well. It's been NRC's standard way for decades. You can view all the measurements we've done there using the link below.
Doug Schneider
The SoundStage! Network
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Topic - Why is sensitivity measured at 1000Hz? - Craiger56 09:22:30 07/22/12 ( 12)
- Thanks all, I get it now - Craiger56 20:42:54 07/22/12 ( 0)
RE: Why is sensitivity measured at 1000Hz? - das@soundstage.com 07/22/12 18:30:53 07/22/12 ( 0)
RE: Why is sensitivity measured at 1000Hz? - Pat D 15:07:35 07/22/12 ( 1)
- RE: Why is sensitivity measured at 1000Hz? - das@soundstage.com 19:33:52 07/22/12 ( 0)
SOME spkr manufacturers measure it at 1KHz, some use... - jeffreybehr 11:24:42 07/22/12 ( 0)
Generalizing again, the midrange runs from around 300 Hz to 4,800 Hz or four octaves. 1 KHz then - cfb 10:45:14 07/22/12 ( 1)
- When we divide the 10 octaves of our (nominal) 20Hz - 20KHz... - jeffreybehr 11:13:39 07/23/12 ( 0)
RE: Why is sensitivity measured at 1000Hz? - tomservo 10:40:17 07/22/12 ( 0)
Why not? - Kal Rubinson 09:34:32 07/22/12 ( 3)
- RE: Why not? - villastrangiato 18:36:27 07/22/12 ( 2)
- Human hearing is up to 8 dB more sensitive at 3kHz - Ole Lund Christensen 10:03:04 08/4/12 ( 1)
- Right - Kal Rubinson 11:24:23 08/4/12 ( 0)