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Speaker Asylum General speaker questions for audio and home theater. |
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Speaker Asylum General speaker questions for audio and home theater. |
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In Reply to: Re: This is silly... posted by JonB on July 29, 2002 at 07:02:54:
I do not see how your scenario fails to be concerned with the audibility of ultrasonics. Technically, one could argue that the speakers capable of reproducing ultrasonics were more accurate; but if the question is what is heard, then it does not seem to be the ultrasonics but distortion products produced in the audible range.It would be possible to have an SACD or DVD-A which would contain ultrasonic frequencies. One could record the test frequencies used, for example, which resulted in the speakers producing sufficient intermodulation distortion to be audible. So, merely introducing a filter could result in an audible change due to the reduction in the distortion, not accuracy in reproducing the high frequencies. The ready explanation would be that the audible difference was due to distortion in the speaker--in other words, something caused by the speaker, not the original signal.
One might prefer the result, of course. Some people prefer some kinds of distortion.
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Follow Ups
- Re: This is silly... - Pat D 12:51:30 07/29/02 (2)
- No it isn't - Ross 13:55:38 07/29/02 (1)
- Re: No it isn't - Pat D 14:09:52 07/29/02 (0)
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