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Speaker Asylum General speaker questions for audio and home theater. |
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Speaker Asylum General speaker questions for audio and home theater. |
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In Reply to: Spendor: why "seamless" posted by dave789 on July 9, 2016 at 11:40:31:
I've used the term myself but never asked why before, so thanks!
I think what I (at least) have meant by it is a plausible, familial consistency of timbre across the available frequency range, so that simultaneous instruments sound as if recorded in the same space. Flatness of frequency response, or neutrality, is a part of it.
I imagine that any single, full-range driver would sound seamless in the sense of "without cross-over". I have heard seamlessness produced by some full-range electrostatics, but never by hybrids -- there I always hear the sound quality change at the woofer-panel intersection.
Counter-intuitively, I have heard apparent seamlessness far more often from speakers with higher-order crossovers than from those with lower.
My own favorite non-electrostatic speakers for "seamlessness" are Spendor BC 3s which, ironically, Harry Pearson once criticized for demonstrating aurally noticeable separation between drivers; but then I've read that he listened very near-field whereas my BC 3s are each about 17' away from my listening position (though they have been closer in earlier rooms with no loss of seamlessness).
Gordon Holt would have done a much better job than I with that!
Jeremy
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- RE: Spendor: why "seamless" - goldenthal 14:03:21 07/10/16 (0)
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