Home Speaker Asylum

General speaker questions for audio and home theater.

RE: Seems like you agree with me



It doesn't matter that "both cables are driven by the same voltage source at the amp" because both cables are not exposed to the same frequency loads.

If we were to take bi-wiring further, and (passively) bi-amp, the amp connected to the high pass would not be loaded by low frequencies, and obviously the amp connected to the low pass would not be loaded by high frequencies.

Without load no current is generated. If an amp (or cable) is only allowed continuity with a narrow range of frequencies, only those frequencies will generate load and be reproduced by a speaker.

If a speaker used a shunt or low value resistor to "block" a chosen range of frequencies, your use of the word "block" would be accurate, the cable and amp would be loaded by, and conduct the chosen frequencies.
But since chosen frequencies are allowed to 'pass' and the frequencies that are not to pass, are shown an near infinite impedance, no conductance of the chosen frequencies range takes place, the amp and cables are not loaded by the frequencies.

You contradict yourself with "both cables are driven by the same voltage source at the amp, but the current is different because the impedance of the crossover is different.

If the impedance is different, do both cables see the same frequencies load?


This post is made possible by the generous support of people like you and our sponsors:
  Schiit Audio  


Follow Ups Full Thread
Follow Ups

FAQ

Post a Message!

Forgot Password?
Moniker (Username):
Password (Optional):
  Remember my Moniker & Password  (What's this?)    Eat Me
E-Mail (Optional):
Subject:
Message:   (Posts are subject to Content Rules)
Optional Link URL:
Optional Link Title:
Optional Image URL:
Upload Image:
E-mail Replies:  Automagically notify you when someone responds.