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The 1st movement is more than a minute faster?

Posted by rbolaw on July 21, 2015 at 16:38:19

In Reply to: The Oistrakh Cleveland 1969 Saga Continues posted by John Marks on July 21, 2015 at 14:59:44:

That would be a discrepancy of close to five percent, given the listed timing of 22:35 for the 2003 CD for the first movement. So the increase in speed is much more, percentage wise, than the increase in pitch (which makes sense given their non-linear relationship).

That result alone would seem to prove your theory, so I'm not sure why there was such a debate about it here when you first mentioned it.

When I tested some of your conclusions (with very modest equipment) on the pitch of Szells's and Oistrakh's other recordings, I found that in at least some of Oistrakh's other concerto recordings, Oistrakh and the accompanying orchestra (not Szell or Cleveland) were often tuned much sharper than a=440. OTOH, some Szell/Clevland orchestral recordings from the 60s I tested did indeed start at exactly a=440, as you stated. But even there, orchestra solos were often played sharp, and the fight to stay at a=440 was not entirely a winning battle. No wonder Szell used that contraption.

But why is any of that relevant, since the timing tells all?

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