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RE: Not a dumb question, but maybe not the right one.

Posted by bjh on May 21, 2012 at 07:37:42:
There is very little mystery here...
For starters a preamp will amplify (or attenuate as the case may be) all frequencies, the bass frequencies included, so while no "direct connection" it clearly has potential to affect the perceived bass performance.
Likewise the amplifier connected to a speaker system with active (sub)woofers, for a few reasons. 1. The reproduction of harmonics of the fundamentals of bass frequencies, 2. Depending upon cut-off, the reproduction of upper/mid bass frequencies.
But that's hardly the point!
Reproduction of the lower bass frequencies for most (if not all) speakers system places the greatest current deliver demands upon an amplifier, and clearly if the amplifier is not driving the woofers it is relieved of supplying this demand.
For someone such as yourself all this, and no doubt more, must be axiomatically obvious, and one wonders if you are not intentionally attempting to obfuscate with this final link in the chain cuteness?
On top of this it now appears that the reviewer didn't even disclose that the three different speaker systems in usage were all systems with powered (sub)woofers.
So let's have your opinion on these matters if you don't mind, namely:
1) Do you feel that testing an amplifier by mating it with a powered (sub)woofers is adequate, in particular for testing the amplifier's ability to reproduce the lower frequencies (bass) in the audio band.
2) Do you feel that such pairing(s) ... power amplifier paired with speaker system with powered (sub)woofers ... should be disclosed?